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DrWho
2nd June 2009, 09:52 PM
I hope that this topic does not upset anyone (apologies if it does) but as a relatively young widower, it is an important issue to me since most unattached Christians in my age group are going to be divorced.

A point to consider is 'does the nature of the divorce affect the answer'. For example, it could be argued that if one partner commits adultery then the marriage bond is broken thus leaving the other partner free to re-marry.

One could also consider the issue of two people living together and then splitting up. Would a relationship with one of these be inappropriate in the sense that they could be considered to have been married in a 'spiritual sense' ("the two shall become one"). After all, there is little difference (apart from inheritance rights) between a register-office marriage and living together.

I look forward to your thoughts on this complex and emotive subject.

Phoenix
10th June 2009, 04:13 PM
:) When Jesus was alive on earth, people were divorcing "for any cause". i.e., a man could divorce his wife if she did not cook his dinner, did not keep the house clean, etc. This is why Jesus said in Matthew 5, v.32, that anyone who divorces his wife - EXCEPT for marital unfaithfulness -..... It was not necessary to specify "For any Cause" as everybody knew what was meant. It would be like today we say "Don't drink and drive". Don't drink what?? Water, juice? No, 'Alcohol'. Now we don't need to specify that it is alcohol because everybody knows what is meant. So anybody who has been divorced because their husband/wife committed adultery IS free to remarry.

This does not mean a one-off case of adultery, but prolonged adultery where the person is neither repentant nor remorseful.

I hope this helps.